Nebosh Igc Questions and Answers 1998-2005

THE NATIONAL interrogative sentence BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND wellness NATIONAL universal CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND wellness PAPER A1 IDENTIFYING AND oerbearing HAZARDS JUNE 1998 Answer ALL skepticismsTime Allowed 2 hours share 1This section contains ONE dubiety. You ar advised to spend close to fractional AN HOUR on it. The ut end pointinalost tag for individually region of the heading argon doomn in brackets. 1(a)Define the term ergonomics. (2) (b) de define the manage subject effectuate on wellness that whitethorn be ca habitd by the lament suit equal ergonomic design of optic pomposity unit (visual display unit) acidifystations. (4) (c) synopsis the main pointors to be considered in an ergonomic legal opinion of a leanstation to be characterd by a VDU operator. (14) Section 2This section contains go suspicion. You atomic number 18 advised to spend roughly ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The utmost marks for each dubiety, or f ibre of a marvel argon chthonicstandn in brackets. 2Provide sketches to show move in the nature of the following machinelike hazards from contemptible relegates of political machinery (i)entanglement(2) (ii)crushing(2) (iii)drawing-in(2) (iv)shear. (2) (a) adumbrate the main factors to be considered in the siting of exhaust extinguishers. (4) (b) enlist the command and maintenance destinys for send packing extinguishers in the study. (4) 4Explain the essence of the following terms in relative to intervention get a line (i)silencing(2) (ii)absorption(2) (iii)damping(2) (iv)isolation. (2) 5 draw a action for the synthetic rubber lifting of a load by the use of a crane, having realized that the crane has been justly selected and positi wizd for the job. (8) (a)Define the term target organ within the context of occupational wellness. (2) (b)Outline the individualized hygiene practices that should be followed to reduce the fortune of ingestion of a raging substance. (6) 7 cite FOUR different types of hazard that whitethorn necessitate the use of finical substructurewear let offing in EACH slip of paper how the footwear affords hold dearion. (8) 8List the items that should be hold on an confabion checklist designed to look into the rubber of port commensurate electrical appliances. (8) 9Outline the main precautions to be ascertainn when carrying knocked out(p) excavation become. (8) 10(a) soil dickens respiratory diseases that may be ca utilize by flick to asbestos. (2) (b) depict where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation hit. (6) 11List the ways in which a fork lift mo civil wrongruck may be buzz off unst commensurate whilst in operating theatre. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1998 root A1 posting and unconditional Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiners work Section 1 interrogative sentence 1 This scruple aimed to tax candidates giganticne ss of cognition in relation to ergonomics.Socratic Seminar interrogative moodsMany candidates, for class (a), were adequate to stand adequate definitions of ergonomics, which is normally accepted as being the study of the interaction between workers and their work, and is welcome-to doe with with the design of the workplace, work equipment and work methods with the invite and limitations of the kind-hearted operator in mind. Definitions ofttimes(prenominal)(prenominal)(prenominal)(prenominal)(prenominal) as man-machine interface, which still commonly pop in candidates answers, argon considered to be besides nar wordsly concentrateed. Ergonomics is come to with far to a greater extent than manifestly the use of machinery. small-arm (b) involve candidates to demonstrate an intellectual of the possible wellness set up that may be caused by the unworthy ergonomic design of VDU workstations. A number of candidates simply listed conditions much(prenominal)(pre nominal) as work-related upper limb dis lodges and eye strain, which was in commensurate to gain eminent marks. The interrogatory compulsory candidates to pass on an portray of such conditions in order to demonstrate a proper discretion of the do. An adequate outline would typically include expound of symptoms and the circumstances that would make the effects more than likely.The last-place sh be of the question was answered reasonably hygienic by close to candidates. Stronger candidates were cap suitable to give well structured answers that considered the equipment, the environs, the proletariat and the individual, and their inter-relationships. Some candidates went beyond the screen back principle of the question and paraphrased the petitionments of the Health and asylum (Display Screen Equipment) Regulations 1992, such as the requirement for eyesight tests. In fact, intimately of the factors germane(predicate) to an ergonomic assessment ar contained in a sche dule to these Regulations.In addition, well-nigh answers included non-ergonomic issues such as paint a picture s launch go and electricity. Once again, candidates are reminded to show up the question well and to take none of disclose words and phrases. Section 2 interrogative mood 2 An on a lower floorstanding of robotic hazards associated with moving split of machinery is a call part of the Certificate syllabus and this question was designed to test candidates understanding of the categorisation of mechanistic hazards given in Part 1 of BS EN 2921991, arctic of machinery basic concepts, general principles for design (and in the former British Standard, BS 53041988, Safe moderateing of machinery).Examiners were non facial expression for for works of art they did, however, require well-nighthing that clearly represented parts of machinery and which exhibit the concomitant hazard being referred to. Arrows to show the direction of movement helped enormously in this task. Some sketches were so shortly(p) that it was impossible to tell whether a hazard existed at all whereas newfangledfangled(prenominal)s were passing well presented and graphic, occasionally verging on the macabre.A considerable number of candidates showed amazement between the different types of hazard in particular, entanglement and drawing-in hazards were much interchanged, and shearing seemed unfamiliar to umteen. Examiners were preferably concerned that on the whole candidates did non take advantage of what should take a crap been easily obtainable marks from this question. doubt 3 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. For part (a), neighboringly all candidates were able to fling an outline of the main factors to be considered in the siting of fire extinguishers.Typical factors mentioned by candidates included accessibility, visibility, proximity to exits and escape routes, travel lengths, and the significance of supporting the equ ipment off the g good turn and free from obstruction. sole(prenominal) a fewerer candidates, however, determine the make to protect extinguishers from the brook and early(a) sources of damage. A little more b new(prenominal) was install with part (b), which necessitate candidates to outline procedures to ensure that fire extinguishers remain operational. on that point were, however, slightly very earnest answers that clearly severalise between the purposes of an inspection and those of maintenance. care of fire extinguishers typically takes the form of routine (eg monthly) visual checks to ensure that extinguishers are in place, soak up not been discharged and bear no pellucid damage. Maintenance, on the other hand, is something alternatively more extensive and usually involves annual tests by a competent individual according to the manufacturers instructions in order to ensure the integrity of the extinguisher, with the remotion and replacement of equipment entr ap to be faulty. capitulum 4 This question sought to assess candidates knowledge of basic mental disturbance bidding terms and principles. Unfortunately, more candidates any confused the terms, particularly damping and absorption, or were unable to demonstrate a clear understanding of the terms in relation to fraudulent scheme control. The latter group of candidates sometimes resorted to great(p) other information on noise that had not been asked for, such as the requirements of the encumbrance at fiddle Regulations 1989, and for which marks were not therefore available.The Examiners were looking for answers which condoneed that silencing refers to the inhibition of noise generated by the flow of air, gas or steam in ducts and vacuum tubes, or when exhausted to the atmosphere, and is achieved by the inclusion of any absorptive veridical or baffles absorption is used to reduce the fare of reflected noise by using materials such as foam or mineral woollen damping is used in general to reduce the amount of noise radiating from large panels and is achieved by increasing the stiffness of the panels and isolation refers to the physical separation of masses from the noise source (eg acoustic booths or havens), or to the reduction in structure-borne noise by vibration isolation (eg flexible subways or anti-vibration machine mounts). Some good answers included simple sketches and examples to help to demonstrate a complete understanding of this field of view. interrogate 5 This was a question where candidates could progress to high gear marks by imagining a lifting operation and t indeed applying steal controls from head start principles. It was not necessary, therefore, to have a detailed knowledge of cranes or lifting tackle. Some candidates wasted valuable time by going into detail on the suitability of the crane itself, even though the question was carefully worded so as to eliminate this aspect.A procedure for a lifting operation take to ta ke into storey such issues as the suitability of the lifting tackle (safe workings load, free from defect, etc) the competence of the souls voluminous (driver, slinger, signaller) ensuring the load is lifted vertically, and that it is secure, balanced and controlled during the lift by the attachment of tag lines where necessary ensuring proper communion retention the area clear of other persons and performing each part of the operation (lifting, slewing/moving and lowering) at a rate that maintains proper control. Question 6 Most candidates, for part (a), were able to convey the idea that the harmful effects of a nephrotoxic substance are normally engrossed to particular organs within the human body, such as the lungs, liver, discase or kidneys. Hence, a target organ is the part of the body that sustains an adverse effect when it is unresolved to, or is grime by, a particular harmful substance or agent. Part (b) looked at the attempt of ingestion and the role played by person-to-person hygiene in cut down the essay.Again, candidates are reminded of the want to aver the question carefully since many a(prenominal) appeared to miss the words ain hygiene and provided answers that took in the entire COSHH hierarchy. redeeming(prenominal) answers to part (b) provided detail of personal hygiene practices such as unbendable hand wash, the restriction of smoking and eating in the workplace, the use of adapted personal restrictive equipment (eg gloves), and the need for removing and cleaning contaminated clothe. Question 7 The importance of foot security system is illustrated by the fact that around 21,000 foot and ankle injuries were reported to the enforcing authorities in 1996/97. This question aimed to test candidates awareness and understanding of the need for foot protection in many occupational settings.It was winning to note that a high equaliser of candidates were able to provide excellent answers to this question, refering good exa mples of the types of hazard and the assume footwear requirements. The al some common included locomote objects (steel toe-caps), sharp objects (steel in-soles), flammable atmospheres (anti-static footwear), mete out of contamination (washable boots), molten metallic element (heat resistant boots and gaiters), electricity (rubber soles), wet environments (impermeable wellingtons), nonstick surfaces (non-slip soles), and cold environments (thermally insulated footwear). Question 8 The Examiners were rejoiced with the overall reaction to this question.Most candidates were able to offer fairly comprehensive lists of inspection items that included equipment appropriate for the task and environment equipment tested equipment, plugs, connectors and cables free from damage place wiring and expire connections fuses and other federal agency of preventing excess ongoing in place and of compensate rating accessible and appropriate bureau of isolation and system not overloaded. Ques tion 9 The dangers of excavation work include collapse of sides, falls of persons, materials or vehicles into the excavation, inter-group communication with buried services, build-up of fumes, ingress of water and signature with mechanical institute. Candidates should have been able to outline a dress of precautions designed to protect against such dangers.Precautions include detection of services (eg from plans, use of cable/pipe detectors, etc) support of sides storage of materials and spoil away from edge means of preventing vehicles falling into excavation (eg stop blocks) apply-rails and barriers means of preventing collapse of adjacent structures safe means of access/egress testing for, and ventilation of, noxious fumes means of pumping out water procedures for working with mechanical plant and general issues such as inspection, grooming and supervision. Candidates who were able to provide detail of such precautions, oft by means of examples, performed particularly wel l on this question. Question 10 Most candidates were able to provide two respiratory diseases for part (a), asbestosis and lung crabby person being the close popular.In similar vein, most candidates, for part (b), were able to post several areas where asbestos could be encountered in a building during renovation. These included pipe lagging, wall and roof panels, ceiling tiles, textured coatings such as fire resistant encapsulation of metal girders, insulation materials, and in gaskets and other seals. Although not affect the marks, the Examiners were a little surprised by the few answers that referred to mesothelioma in part (a), despite this particular type of cancer being predominantly associated with asbestos exposure. Question 11 Most candidates coped reasonably well with this question, with marks being comparatively easy to obtain when a structured approach, which considered the load, the environment and the vehicle itself, was adopted.Typical issues mentioned were insecur e, spendthrift or uneven loading incorrect tilt and/or airlift of forks when travelling uneven or unconsolidated ground slopes (and incorrect procedures to craft with them) obstructions (overhead and low level) cornering at excessive speeds sudden braking poor condition of tyres and mechanical nonstarter. THE NATIONAL inquiry BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL superior general CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A2 THE MANAGEMENT OF SAFETY AND HEALTH JUNE 1998 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE question. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it.The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. 1(a)Outline the duties placed on employers under the Manual Handling Operations Regulations 1992. (4) (b) get word the FOUR factors that should be considered when devising an assessment of manual intervention trading operations. (16) Section 2This section contains TEN questi on. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. 2Outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with a workplace hand brake. (8) 3(a)Define the term negligence(2) (b)Outline the THREE step conditions that essential be met for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence against an employer. (6) 4Outline the key points that should be covered in a formulation session for employees on the insurance coverage of chances/incidents. (8) 5List the main requirements of the Provision and Use of Work Equipment Regulations 1992. (8) 6With savoir-faire to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations 1996 (i)explain the difference between consulting and informing(2) (ii)outline the health and gumshoe matters on which employers mustiness consult their employees. (6) Outline ii reactive measures and TWO proactive measures that can be used in observe an organisations health and sanctuary performance. (8) 8Outline the reasons why employees may fail to comply with safe procedures at work. (8) 9(a)Explain the content of the terms (i) occupational exposure standard (OES) (ii) maximum exposure limit (MEL). (2)(2) (b)Outline FOUR actions management could take when an MEL has been exceeded. (4) 10(a)Explain the meaning of the term safe system of work. (2) (b)Describe the enforcement action that could be taken by an enforcing business office when a safe system of work has not been implemented. (6) 1Outline the factors to consider when making an assessment of first-aid readying in a workplace. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1998 Paper A2 The management of gumshoe and health Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiners deal Section 1 Question 1 With manual discussion injuries amongst the most common type of injury sustained by passel at work, this question sought to test the depth a nd breadth of knowledge of candidates with conceive both to the legal requirements relating to manual handling and to the practical considerations of conducting manual handling assessments. There were some very good repartees to the first part of this question.Good answers sketch the employers duties contained in regulation 4 of the Regulations of avoiding manual handling operations wheresoever possible conducting suitable and sufficient assessments of the tasks taking steps to reduce the risk of injury to the lowest level reasonably practicable providing information to employees on the weight and weight distribution of the load and reviewing assessments as necessary. Part (b) necessitate candidates to describe the four factors to be considered in an assessment of manual handling operations. The four factors sought, and which nearly all candidates correctly identify, were the task, the load, the environment and the individual.The Examiners awarded marks to candidates who were ab le to consider a wide regulate of issues under each, and which are listed in Column 2 of Schedule 1 of the Regulations. Therefore, when considering the task, issues such as the distance of the load from the trunk, body movements and postures required (eg twisting, stooping, stretching, excessive carrying, etc), excessive pushing or pulling, and the work rate imposed by the forge, are all relevant. Similarly, a range of issues associated with the load would include its weight, bulkiness, stability, sharpness, temperature and the ease with which it can be grasped. When considering the environment, factors such as ambient temperature, floor conditions, space and lighting are important.Lastly, a suitable and sufficient assessment would consider the individual by looking at physical capabilities, health (eg fitness, pregnancy) and the requirements for additional information and readiness. The overall standard of response to this question was extremely good and Examiners were pleased that candidates were mainly able to show a clear understanding of such an important health and safety issue. Section 2 Question 2 This question required candidates to outline the factors that should be considered when preparing a procedure to deal with workplace emergencies such as a fire, explosion, bomb scare, chemical leakage or other dangerous occurrence. Formal procedures should be established to deal with such eventualities and are a specific requirement of the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1992.Responses to this question were varied with some candidates able to provide sooner middling answers and others merely focusing on what to do in an material extremity (usually a fire) rather than when preparing a procedure to deal with one. intermit candidates provided a wide range of considerations, including amongst many other possibilities the recognition and training requirements of persons with specific responsibilities the layout of the premises in rela tion to escape routes, etc the number of persons impact assessment of special needs (disabled persons, children, etc) warning systems emergency lighting the emplacement of shut-off valves, isolation witches, hydrants, etc the equipment required to deal with the emergency the location of assembly points communication with emergency services and the training and/or information to be provided to employees, visitors, the topical anaesthetic community and others who might be affected. Question 3 Disappointingly, many candidates ground it difficult to provide, for part (a), a clear definition of negligence, a tort involving a prisonbreak of the common law duty to take honest care. As has happened in the past, candidates sometimes confused the issue by introducing aspects of venomous liability, in particular by introducing the statutory duties under section 2 of the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.For part (b), most candidates managed to provide reasonable answers that identi fied the iii standard conditions for an employee to prove a case of alleged negligence firstly, that a duty of care is owed secondly, that a breach of the duty occurred in that the employer failed to take reasonable care and, thirdly, that the breach led directly to the loss, damage or injury. An outline was required to show what each means in practice. Some candidates do use of appropriate examples for this purpose. Question 4 The overall response to this question was rather poor. It was clear that a number of candidates considered the word describe solely in relation to the reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations 1995. Others appeared to miss the reference to training and simply outlined suitable internal reporting procedures.Whilst such procedures would form part of a training session, the existing procedures did not really form part of an answer to this question. Good answers to this question referred to the need in a training session to explain the importance of reporting accidents and incidents (for legal, investigative and monitoring reasons), the types of incident that the organisation requires to be reported, the lines of reporting, how to complete internal documents and forms, and responsibilities for completing the accident book and for complying with statutory reporting duties. Question 5 This was a straightforward question where little impediment was anticipated and, reassuringly, little appeared to have been found.Many candidates gained maximum marks by including most, if not all, of the requirements relating to the suitability of work equipment training maintenance of equipment conformity with EU requirements preventing contact with dangerous parts of machinery protection against specified hazards protection against high or low temperatures stop and emergency stop controls position of controls safety of control systems means of isolation stability lighting safety of maintenance operations and the provision of bulls eyes and warnings. Little more than this was required for the list that was asked for. A few answers went further than necessary by large detail of the requirements, such as the means of protecting against dangerous parts.patronage much of the information being sound, no further marks were available and candidates are once again reminded to take note of the action verb in each question. Question 6 The HSE escape to the Health and Safety (Consultation with Employees) Regulations draws a clear distinction between informing and consulting. perchance from a general understanding of the words, nearly all candidates, for part (i), were able to differentiate between the two. Under the Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974, employers have a duty to inform employees (ie provide information on hazards, risks and control measures) in order to help to ensure their health and safety.This general duty is echoed in a number of Regulations made under the Act. The Health and Safety (Consul tation with Employees) Regulations 1996, however, require that employers consult their employees on health and safety matters (ie listen to, and take account of, their views) before a decision is taken. The response to part (ii) was mixed, with some candidates seemingly applying a certain amount of snaps importunate (albeit sometimes kinda intuitively) and others showing an obvious familiarity with the requirements of the Regulations. It is worth noting that the matters on which an employer must consult under these Regulations are identical to those in the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977.They include the introduction of any measure at the workplace that may substantially affect employees health and safety the arrangements for appointing and/or nominating competent persons the intend and organisation of health and safety training the health and safety implications of introducing new technology and the information that the employer is required to prov ide under other Regulations, such as that relating to risk assessments, preventive measures and emergency procedures. Hence, employers are obliged not only to provide information but- they must also consult their employees on the appropriateness of the information before it is given. Question 7 Health and safety performance in the workplace can be monitored using a variety of techniques and measures. This question required candidates to distinguish between those that might be described as reactive (assessing past failures to control risks) and those that are proactive (identifying non-compliance with policy or procedures before actual harm occurs).Reactive measures include accident and ill health records, civil claims and enforcement actions whereas proactive measures include the results of safety inspections and audits, environmental monitoring records, assessments of health and safety training and the extent to which risk assessments have been completed. The general response to th is question was reasonably good although some candidates appeared to confuse the two terms, which resulted in weaker answers. Question 8 This question was answered well by the majority of candidates. Examiners were pleased that candidates were able to outline a wide range of issues for this human factors question, which present a good understanding of this part of the Certificate syllabus.There are many reasons why employees may fail to comply with safety procedures at work and candidates achieving good marks recognised some of them, amongst others, as unrealistic or ill-considered procedures mental and/or physical capabilities not taken into account inadequate training poor organisational safety culture complacency/ omit of motivation peer group pressure other priorities and pressures risks not sensed slips and lapses fatigue and strive and perceived escape of consultation. Question 9 Despite previous Examiners Reports drawing attention to the general lack of understanding of, and confusion between, the two types of occupational exposure limit (OEL), many candidates were again assay to provide adequate answers to part (a) of this question.As a starting point, tutors should ensure that candidates are aware that OELs refer to airborne concentrations of particular substances and thus are primarily concerned with the prevention of ill-health effects by inhalation. Following this, there needs to be an understanding that a harmful substance is appoint an OES when current evidence signalizes that there is no harmful effect at this level, and that honest airborne concentrations at or to a lower place the standard are considered acceptable. An MEL, however, is assigned to a substance when there are difficulties, either technical or due to lack of evidence, in establishing a level that is considered safe. For this reason, airborne concentrations of substances with an MEL must be as far as reasonably practicable below this maximum limit in order to derogate an y ill-health effects.Excursions to a higher place an MEL must be explained and immediately controlled. Good answers to part (b) relied to an extent on candidates explanations of an MEL in the first part, and an understanding of the serious implications of exceeding an MEL. ameliorate responses differentiated between the immediate and longer term actions that may be necessary. indispensableness procedures such as evacuation, isolation and venting of the affected area, and curtailing the edge producing the contaminant, would be required immediately. Following that, an assessment should be made of the reasons for the break heap in control and improvements (such as more effective ventilation) introduced.At the same time, anyone exposed to high concentrations should be the subject of special health care. Question 10 The instruction of safe systems is an essential part of the work of those with health and safety responsibilities. It is pleasing to note that many candidates were able to offer clear, concise definitions that showed a good understanding of the term and its implications. A reasonable explanation of the term is, for example, a considered procedure for carrying out a task safely, taking into account the risks and control measures, the equipment needed, the environment, contingent requirements, and the competence and skills required of personnel.Part (b) was also well answered although there was a slight tendency for lists, which received minimal credit. Higher marks were awarded to candidates who explained the conditions that would mend the type of action that an inspector might take, and the effects of that action on the organisation. Possible enforcement actions are the issue of an improvement or prohibition notice, and prosecution. acknowledgment was also given for the recognition that an inspector may give vocal or written advice and/or warning before taking more serious action. Question 11 Most candidates seemed to be familiar with the need for first-aid provision in the workplace and the factors that would determine the level of provision required.An assessment of first-aid provision involves looking at the number and level of training of first-ciders, as well as the type and location of first-aid facilities and equipment, in relation to such factors as the number and distribution of employees, the work patterns in operation (eg shiftwork), the workplace activities and risks, and the proximity of emergency services. Some candidates commendably extended their answers by considering other factors such as the special needs of juvenility, disabled or peripatetic employees. Paper A1 Question 1An inefficient local exhaust ventilation (LEV) system has been identified as the main cause of excessive broadcast levels in a workplace. (i) mention FOUR possible indications of a dust fuss that may have alerted staff to the inefficiency of the LEV system. (4)- (ii) Outline the factors that may have reduced the dominance of the LEV system. (8) iii) Describe control methods other than LEV that might be used to minimise levels of airborne dust. (8) This question was designed to assess candidates breadth of knowledge of the difficulty of dust in the workplace. In answering part (i), most candidates were able to identify at least three indications of a dust problem in a workplace, such as deposits of dust on people and surfaces, particles visible in the air and complaints of discomfort and irritation by the employees. Only a few referred to the results of air monitoring or actual ill-health effects. For part (ii), most candidates were able to outline at least a reasonable range of factors.Better candidates addressed both underlying factors, such as poor design and a lack of maintenance and/or periodic testing, and the more immediate factors, such as the hood being placed too far from the source of the emission, damaged or blocked ducting or filters, unauthorized alteration to the system, incorrect settings, a faulty fan and possible changes to the process leading to change magnitude dust emissions. In part (iii), candidates were given the opportunity to describe methods of minimising levels of airborne dust that may be needed in addition or as an alternative to local exhaust ventilation. These could have included the cessation of the activity creating the dust, changing the process to educe the amount of dust produced, substituting a dust creating material for another in paste or liquid form, segregating or enclosing the process and damping down the dust to enable it to be removed by vacuum. Many candidates demonstrated a good understanding of the principles by describing such methods in a hierarchical order, and almost all indicated the importance of using cleaning methods that do not disturb settled dust (ie vacuuming instead of sweeping). Some became a little carried away with the COSHH hierarchy by referring to the use of respiratory protective equipment, which may reduce person al exposures but has no effect on levels of airborne dust.Many candidates also suggested the introduction of dilution ventilation, which is an ineffective method of controlling dust and may even have the effect of distributing it more widely crossways the workplace. Question 2Outline the possible hazards from using a petrol-driven strimmer to maintain roadside verges. (8) This was not a well answered question, with most candidates able to achieve only a few of the marks available for outlining some of the possible hazards arising from using a petrol-driven strimmer. Such hazards include exposure to fumes, the theory of fire or explosion, contact with the moving parts of the strimmer, being struck by flying stones and fragments, noise and vibration, manual handling, slips, trips and falls, the possibility of being struck by moving affair and exposure to extreme weather conditions.Some candidates decided not to answer the question that was asked and either outlined the possible haz ards arising from the use of an electric strimmer or discussed how the risks associated with the use of the equipment might be controlled. Question 3Outline the precautions to protect against electrical contact when (i)excavating near underground cables(4) (ii)working in the vicinity of overhead power lines. (4) Part (i) of this question was answered slightly more successfully than part (ii), with fracture candidates referring to isolation of the supply, the identification of cable routes from plans and by the use of cable detectors, checking for service box covers, marking of cable routes on site and digging with hand- puppets rather than with a mechanical excavator. Precautions gainst overhead power lines, for part (ii), include isolation, erection of goal-post barriers to define head distances, clear marking of danger zones (for example with signs and bunting), ensuring safe access routes under lines (for instance, with tunnels), the appropriate use of marshals and banksmen whe n there is a possibility that cranes, excavators or tipper lorries might approach overhead lines, and the restricted use of items such as metal ladders and scaffold tubes near live lines. Examiners were genuinely concerned by some of the precautions against high voltage electricity that were being offered by some candidates, in particular the idea that insulated footwear and tools would afford protection and that residual current . devices might be appropriate in either of the two situations. It was significant that only around half of the candidates mentioned the possibility of separate the power supply in either part of the question.Some candidates missed the focus of the question and either concentrated on the preparation of a risk assessment or described in detail the operation of a countenance-to-work system, neither of which directly affords protection against electrical contact. Question 4 (a) Outline the principles of the following types of machine observe (i) fixed guar d(2) (ii) interlocked guard. (2) (b) Identify TWO advantages and TWO disadvantages of a fixed machine guard. (4) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates showed they had at least a basic understanding of the principles of the most common types of guard. The majority correctly identified that a fixed guard is physically attached to the machine and normally requires a special tool to remove it.Fewer, however, specifically mentioned the fact that it provides a physical barrier that has no moving parts and is not linked to the controls, motion or hazardous condition of the machine. Interlocked guards, on the other hand, work on the principle that a machine cannot start or otherwise become dangerous until the guard is closed, and that when the machine is in a dangerous condition either the guard cannot be opened or opening the guard causes the machine to come to rest. Where problems did arise was in the identification of the advantages and disadvantages of a fixed guard. Ca ndidates should have identified that the simplicity of a fixed guard means it is easy to inspect and maintain and the fact that there are no moving parts leads to change magnitude reliability.On the other hand, the fact that it is not linked to the machine controls means that no protection is afforded should it be removed and, since it is fixed and requires a special tool for its removal, access, when required, is more difficult. A physical barrier, particularly if it is solid rather than meshed, may also hamper visual inspection of the machine or the work being performed. Question 5Identify FOUR possible routes of entry of toxic substances into the body and, in EACH case, describe a circumstance in which an employee might be at risk of such exposure. (8) Most candidates successfully identified the routes of entry of toxic substances into the body as inhalation, ingestion, through the skin and by crack.Describing the circumstances in which an employee might be at risk in each case , however, proved a little more difficult. Examiners were looking for examples such as inhalation due to a build up of fume or vapour, either as part of a process (eg welding) or accidentally (eg spillage) ingestion caused perhaps by poor personal hygiene (eg eating or smoking without first washing the hands) entry through the skin if wounds are not covered or by contact with chemicals (eg solvents) that may be absorbed through the skin and injection possibly caused by the handling of contaminated sharp objects. Question 6Outline the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when work is carried out on a pitched ( sloped) roof. (8)This question sought to test candidates knowledge of the precautions that should be taken to reduce the risk of injury when working on sloping roofs. The majority provided reasonable answers and referred to many of the relevant precautions such as the provision of safe access to the roof- and roof edge protection, the use of crawling bo ards or roof ladders, identifying and covering roof lights, arrangements for moving tools and materials to and from the roof, the issue and wearing of personal protective equipment such as helmets, footwear and harnesses, the employment of a expert and competent workforce, and the need to stop the work activity during adverse weather conditions.Question 7 (a)Outline SIX factors to be considered when selecting suitable eye protection for use at work. (6) (b)Identify ONE advantage and ONE disadvantage of safety gawk compared with safety spectacles. (2) In answering part (a) of the question, most candidates referred to the need to ensure that the type of protective equipment is appropriate for the particular hazard against which protection is required (eg chemical, impact, ultraviolet light, molten metal). In this context, reference was usually made to the need for the equipment to meet quality and safety standards, in particular that it bears a CE mark. Comfort factors were also gen erally identified, as was compatibility with other equipment, including prescription spectacles.Other relevant factors to be considered include durability, cost, and maintenance and training requirements. Candidates generally gained full marks for their answers to part (b) since there are several advantages and disadvantages of goggles from which only one of each was required. Advantages include the fact that goggles provide all round protection, particularly against projectiles and chemicals, and tend not to be easily displaced. Disadvantages include the increased tendency of goggles to mist up, the generally higher cost involved and the fact that they may be more uncomfortable than spectacles. Question 8Outline the possible risks to health and safety associated with laying paving slabs in a work high street. (8)Examiners were looking to candidates to outline such risks as trapped fingers, foot injuries and musculoskeletal problems from handling slabs the possibility of being stru ck by relations injuries from the use of cutting discs (eg contact with the disc and being struck by flying particles) the effects of exposure to noise, vibration, dust and wet cement and the increased likelihood of tripping. Even though candidates might not have had personal experience of the activity described, it was nevertheless one that could be visualised quite easily in order to identify a good range of possible risks. A few candidates, however, again seemed not to have read the question carefully enough and concentrated on the control measures, for which no marks could be awarded.Question 9Outline the measures that should be taken to minimise the risk of fire from electrical equipment. (8) In answering this question, Examiners pass judgment candidates to outline measures such as the proper selection of equipment to ensure its suitability for the task, pre-use inspection by the user, establishing correct fuse ratings, ensuring circuits and sockets are not overloaded, discon necting or isolating the equipment when it is not in use, and ensuring that electric motors do not overheat (eg by checking that vents are uncovered). superfluous measures include the need to uncoil cables (particularly extension leads) to prevent the build up of heat and protecting cables from mechanical damage.Importantly, electrical equipment and systems should be subject to regular inspection, testing and maintenance by competent persons. This should ensure, for instance, that contacts are sound, thereby reducing the likelihood of electrical arcing. While most candidates were able to outline some of the above measures, surprisingly few offered comprehensive answers. Of those who did identify a sufficient number of measures, some provided answers that were far too brief. For an outline, it was necessary to say something about how each measure reduces the risk of fire. Question 10(a)Identify TWO respiratory diseases that may be caused by exposure to asbestos. 2) (b) Explain where asbestos is likely to be encountered in a building during renovation work. (6) In answering part (a) of this question, many candidates identified a variety of respiratory problems that were either non-specific or are not associated with asbestos. Pneumoconiosis and asthma were frequently given as examples. more knowledgeable candidates referred specifically to asbestosis, mesothelioma or lung cancer. Part (b) was reasonably well answered with most candidates identifying, for instance, pipe lagging, roofing materials, loft and wall insulation, sprayed coatings (for example, in fire-resistant encapsulation of metal girders), and the use of asbestos in ceiling tiles, panels and textured finishes.Fewer mentioned the possibility of gaskets, packing and plugs made of asbestos-containing materials. Question 11List octette non-mechanical hazards associated with machinery. (8) This was intended to be a straightforward question that should have been answered quickly as well as giving the c andidates an opportunity to gain valuable marks. The list should have included such hazards as electricity, noise, vibration, radiation, extremes of temperature, fire and explosion, hazardous substances (both by direct contact with, for instance, oils and greases and by exposure to dust and fumes) and those related to insufficient attention to ergonomic issues.Some candidates included in their list, or even concentrated on exclusively, various mechanical hazards, for which no marks could be given. This suggests that they had either misread the question or did not fully appreciate the distinction between mechanical and non-mechanical machinery hazards. Paper A2, Question 1A newly established company is to refurbish existing office modification before recruiting staff. Outline (i)the eudaimonia facilities that should be considered when planning the refurbishment(8) (ii)the main issues to be addressed in a general health and safety, induction programme(6) for the new staff (iii)the p rocedures that might be needed in order to ensure the health and safety of visitors to the premises during working hours(6)This question was generally answered quite well, probably because it was concerned with issues that were comparatively straightforward and ones with which many candidates would have already been familiar. In answering part (i), candidates should have referred to the provision of sanitary conveniences, washing facilities, drinking water, eating and rest areas away from the work area, accommodation for clothing not worn at work and rest facilities for expectant and care for mothers. Some candidates appeared not to notice that the work situation described was office-based and answered the question as though more dangerous activities were involved. Few offices, for instance, would be required to have locker rooms, or shower and changing facilities.In addition, a few candidates took a wider remit than was required by the question by referring to general well-being issues (eg heating, ventilation and other factors affecting comfort) rather than concentrating on the actual facilities for employee welfare. For part (ii), Examiners were looking for answers that referred to issues such as the company health and safety policy, emergency procedures, specific risks associated with the working environment, procedures for reporting incidents, first-aid arrangements, information on welfare facilities, consultation procedures and the responsibilities of employees. This part of the question seemed to cause some candidates surprising difficulty with a few able to refer to little more than fire and other emergency issues and accident reporting.Any candidate who had visited a well-managed workplace should have had little difficulty in answering part (iii) by outlining procedures such as the initial reception process involving the registration of personal details and the issue of identification badges, the provision of information on site rules (including em ergency procedures) and information on the hazards and risks within the establishment that might affect the visitor. Better candidates suggested that visitors should be supervised, and possibly escorted, at all times by a member of staff. Common to each of the three parts of the question was a requirement to provide an outline of the issues identified.It was insufficient in part (i), for instance, simply to specify sanitary conveniences without mentioning that they should be adequate in number in relation to the number of employees, separate for men and women, and well lit and ventilated. Question 2Inadequate lighting in the workplace may affect the level of filter out amongst employees. Outline EIGHT other factors associated with the physical environment that may increase, stress at work. This question required candidates to outline factors associated with the physical working environment that might increase levels of stress at work. Answers should have referred to factors such as cramped, dirty or untidy working onditions, workplace layout resulting in a lack of privacy or security, problems with glare, extremes of temperature and/or humidity, inadequate ventilation resulting in stale air (or conversely, draughty conditions), exposure to noise and vibration, inadequate welfare facilities and, for those working outside, inclement weather conditions. Despite the clear signposting, many candidates referred to psychological (eg bullying) and organisational (eg work pressures) stressors instead of restricting their answers to the physical environment as required. Question 3Explain, using an example in EACH case, the meaning of the following terms (i) hazard(2) (ii) risk(3) (iii) so far as is reasonably practicable. (3) Examiners were disappointed, and a little surprised, to go back that a significant number of candidates struggled to provide explanations of such fundamental health and safety terms.Additionally, in the case of those who did give reasonable expla nations, they either then did not give examples or used inappropriate examples that suggested a lack of understanding of what had gone before. This was particularly so in relation to the term hazard. As far as risk was concerned, a number of candidates referred to the probability or likelihood of harm but did not expand their explanation to include the likely consequence in terms of the severity of such harm. In attempting to explain so far is as reasonably practicable, most candidates inferred that this involves balance risk against cost but fewer were able to go much further in explaining what this means in practical terms.Question 4In relation to the Safety Representatives and Safety Committees Regulations 1977, outline (i) the functions of a trade-union appointed safety representative(6) (ii) the facilities that an employer may need to provide to safety representatives. (2) In answering part (i) of the question, candidates were expected to outline functions such as examining the causes of accidents, investigating complaints from employees, carrying out safety inspections, making representation to the employer, attending safety committee meetings, and representing employees in consultation with the enforcing authority and receiving information from its inspectors. There were some good answers to this part of the question where candidates were able to show their knowledge of the relevant part of the Regulations.Unfortunately, these were balanced by some very poor attempts from those who did not possess such knowledge. For part (ii), reference should have been made to the provision of facilities such as a snobby room in circumstances when this is necessary and access to a telephone, facsimile machine, photocopier and relevant reference material. Some candidates did not seem to appreciate the meaning of the word facilities and outlined instead the rights of safety representatives, such as those relating to training and the allocation of sufficient time t o carry out their duties. Question 5 (a)Identify TWO situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate. (2) b) Outline the key elements of a permit-to-work system. (6) For part (a), most candidates were able to identify two situations where a permit-to-work system might be considered appropriate choosing from work in confined spaces, work in flammable atmospheres, work on electrical equipment, hot work, and maintenance work on dangerous process plant or production machinery. Part (b) of the question was not so well answered and relatively few candidates were able to outline all the elements of a permit system, the first of which would be a description and assessment of the task to be performed (including the plant involved and the possible hazards).This will determine the need for, and nature of, other key elements namely, the isolation of sources of energy and inlets, the additional precautions required (eg atmospheric monitoring, PPE, emergency equipment) and the duration of the permit. An essential element of a permit-to-work system is, of course, the operation of the permit itself. By means of signatures, the permit should be issued by an authorised person and accepted by the competent person responsible for the work. On period of the work, the competent person would need to indicate on the permit that the area had been made safe in order for the permit to be scratch by the authorised person, after which the isolations could be removed. Question 6Outline the actors that may indicate a need for health surveillance of employees in a workplace. (8) This question appeared to cause problems for many candidates, some of whom identified particular situations where health surveillance would be appropriate rather than outlining the factors that might indicate a need for it. In answering, candidates could have chosen from a variety of factors such as ill-health and absence records, first-aid treatments, complaints from employees, the find ings of risk assessments, the results of inspections or monitoring activities, changes in methods of work and the relevant requirements of current legislation and approved codes of practice.Question 7Outline FOUR advantages and FOUR disadvantages of using propaganda posters to legislate health and safety information to the workforce. (8) Posters are a commonly used medium for passing on health and safety messages to the workforce and many candidates will have used them or seen them in use. The question was generally well answered although some found more difficulty in outlining the disadvantages as opposed to the advantages. Advantages of posters include their relatively low cost, their flexibility, their brevity, their use in reinforcing communicatory instructions or information and in providing a constant proctor of the importance of health and safety, and the potential to involve employees in their selection and hence in the message being conveyed.Disadvantages include the nee d to change posters on a regular basis if they are to be noticed, the fact that they may become soiled, defaced and out-of-date, and the possibility that they might appear to trivialise serious matters. There may also be an over-reliance on posters to convey health and safety information and they may be perceived by unscrupulous employers as an easy, if not particularly effective, way of discharging their health and safety obligations by transmutation the responsibility onto the workforce for any accidents that may occur. Question 8 (a) Identify FOUR factors relating to the individual that might increase the risk of accidents at work. (4) (b) rejoin reasons why maintenance operations may pose particular risks to those toil them. 4) This question produced a mixed response from candidates. In answering part (a), many could identify only one or two factors, most commonly the strongly linked psychological factors of attitude and motivation. Only better candidates identified additiona l factors such as age, lack of skill or experience, lack of familiarity (or possibly overfamiliarity) with the workplace, high stress levels, and health problems, medical conditions or physical disability/incapacity (including that brought about by alcohol or drugs). Similarly, for part (b) there were few candidates who were able to identify a range of relevant reasons for maintenance activities posing special risks.Such reasons may include the earth of new or different hazards, the lack of familiarity or experience with the tasks or equipment involved, the likelihood that the events leading to the need for maintenance and their contingent hazards would be unpredictable, the possibility that the maintenance operations would have to be carried out in confined spaces or other poor work environments, and the inevitable pressure on maintenance staff to complete the work in as short a time as possible in order to replication to normal production. Question 9Explain the difference betwee n HSC Approved Codes of Practice and HSE guidance, giving an example of EACH. (8) Relatively few candidates performed well on this question. Most found it difficult to explain the essential differences between the two types of document and, when examples were given, they were often vague or incorrect. Approved Codes of Practice are approved by the Health and Safety Commission with the consent of the Secretary of State and provide a recognised interpretation of how an employer may comply with relevant legislation.Although failure to comply with the provision of an ACOP is not in itself an offence, the failure may be cited in court of justice in criminal proceedings as establishment that there has been a contravention of the legislation to which the provision relates. Employees must either meet the standards contained in the ACOP or show that they have complied with an equal or better standard. A number of examples could have been cited such as the ACOPs complementing the workplace (Health, Safety and Welfare) Regulations 1992 and the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999. Guidance, on the other hand, is issued by the Health and Safety Executive with the intention of giving advice on good practice. The advice is generally more practically based than that contained in an ACOP. Guidance has no legal standing in a court of law.Examples of HSE guidance documents include those issued on matters such as manual handling, display screen equipment and personal protective equipment. Question 10(a)In relation to risk assessments carried out under the Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations 1999, explain the meaning of the term suitable and sufficient. (3) (b)Outline the changes in circumstances that may require a risk assessment to be reviewed. (5) Examiners found that part (a) of this question elicited a generally poor response and few candidates were able to give an adequate explanation of the term suitable and sufficient in relation to risk assessment.Such an assessment should identify all significant hazards and risks, enable priorities to be set, allow the identification of the protective measures required, be appropriate to the nature of the work and be valid over a reasonable period of time. Part (b), in contrast, tended to attract some better answers, with candidates able to outline such circumstances as changes in process, work method or materials (type or quantity), the introduction of new plant or technology, new information proper available, a change in legislation, changes in personnel (eg the employment of young or disabled persons), and when the results of monitoring (accidents, ill-health and environmental) are not as expected. Question 11Identify EIGHT measures that can be used to monitor an organisations, health and safety performance. 8) There are various indicators that an organisation can use to assess different aspects of its health and safety performance and Examiners were looking for answers containing a mixture of both proactive and reactive measures. Reactive performance measures include accident and ill-health statistics, incidents of reported near-misses and dangerous occurrences, actions taken by the enforcement authorities and insurance claims. proactive measures, on the other hand, might include the results of inspections and/or environmental monitoring, safety audit outcomes and the results of medical/health surveillance. Some candidates restricted their answers to the identification of monitoring methods (such as safety nspections, tours and sampling) rather than the measures that are derived from them and which can be compared over time. This sometimes limited the number of marks that could be awarded. THE NATIONAL EXAMINATION BOARD IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH NATIONAL GENERAL CERTIFICATE IN OCCUPATIONAL SAFETY AND HEALTH PAPER A1 IDENTIFYING AND exacting HAZARDS JUNE 1999 Answer ALL questionsTime Allowed 2 hours Section 1This section contains ONE ques tion. You are advised to spend approximately HALF AN HOUR on it. The maximum marks for each part of the question are shown in brackets. 1(a)List THREE types of crane used for lifting operations. (3) (b)Outline factors to be considered when assessing the suitability of a mobile crane for a lifting operation. (7) (c)Outline a procedure for the safe lifting and lowering of a load by use of a mobile crane, having ensured that the crane has been correctly selected and positioned for the job. (10) Section 2This section contains TEN question. You are advised to spend approximately ONE AND A HALF HOURS on it. The maximum marks for each question, or part of a question are shown in brackets. 2In relation to occupational dermatitis (i)identify TWO common causative agents(2) (ii)describe the typical symptoms of the condition (3) (iii) offer the sources of information that may help to identify dermatitic substances in the workplace. (3) 3A pneumatic drill is to be used during extensive repai r work to the floor of a busy warehouse. (i)Identify by means of a labelled sketch, THREE possible transmission paths the noise from the drill could take. (3) (ii)Outline appropriate control measures to reduce the noise exposures of the operator AND the warehouse staff. (5) 4State the health and safety risks associated with welding operations. (8) 5(a)Outline the effects on the human body from a severe electric shock. (4) (b)Describe how earthing can reduce the risk of receiving an electric shock. (4) 6Identify FOUR different types of hazard that may necessitate the use of special footwear, explaining in EACH case how the footwear affords protection. (8) The exterior paintwork of a row of shops in a busy high street is due to be repainted. Identify the hazards associated with the work and outline the corresponding precautions to be taken. (8) 8(a)Identify TWO types of non-ionising radiation, giving an occupational source of EACH. (4) (b)Outline the health effects associated wi th exposure to non-ionising radiation. (4) 9Explain the methods of heat transfer that cause the banquet of fire. (8) 10(a)List TWO types of injury that may be caused by the incorrect manual handling of loads. (2) (b)Outline a good manual handling technique that could be adopted by a person required to lift a load from the ground. (6) 1List EIGHT safe practices to be followed when using a skip for the collection and removal of waste from a construction site. (8) NEBOSH Certificate June 1999 Paper A1 Identifying and Controlling Hazards Outline answers and guidance given in the NEBOSH examiners Report Section 1 Question 1 This question was designed to test candidates knowledge on the use and operation of cranes. Part (a) required candidates to identify three types of crane and it was envisaged that this would cause little difficulty, particularly